Now
the question is, is it theoretically right to assume that futures trading results
in price rise? To figure it out, let us start from the beginning. It is commonsensical
that rise in prices of any commodity usually results from the shortage in its
supply. This shortage could be either artificial - resulting not from supply deficit
but more due to speculative hoarding - or natural, which again could be a temporary
passing phase or of a long-term nature - which means hiccups in supply logistics
resulting in dislocation and thus causing shortage and the consequent price rise
only for a short-period or a genuine structural deficit in supply that is likely
to last for quite sometime.
As against this, what we are witnessing today
in the wheat market is more of a "fundamental" nature arising out of
a genuine shortage in its production. Market reports indicate that wheat production
in the country has stagnated at around 70 million tons for the last 4 to 5 years.
Interestingly, the growth rate in GDP continued to hover around 8% during the
same period. It means that while the per capita income rose resulting in a shift
of people from consumption of coarse grain such as Jowar, Maize, etc., to finer
grains like wheat and paddy, the wheat production remained stagnant, which obviously
widened the gap between the supply of and demand for wheat.
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